Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02

2. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 1. Topic 1, Airways and Breathing What is the maximum flow rate for a Nasal Cannula? A. 2 lpm B. 8 lpm C. 12 lpm D. 6 lpm Answer: D Explanation: A nasal cannula used to administer O2 at flow rates from 2 - 6 LPM, delivering an O2 concentration so 28 - 44% 2.What is the following device? A device designed to facilitate the blind intubation of a patient. It consists of a cuffed double-lumen tube with one blind end. Inflation of the cuff allows the device to function as an endotracheal tube and closes off the esophagus, allowing ventilation and preventing reflux of gastric contents. A. Nasal Gastric Tube B. Dual Lumen Airway C. Endothracheal Tube D. Non Rebreather Answer: B Explanation: This device is also known as a Combi-Tube 3.In order to provide Oxygen Therapy at "100%" what should the flow rate be? A. 12-15 LPM B. 100 LPM C. 20-24 LPM D. 2-6 LPM Answer: A Explanation: 12-15 LPM administered via a NBR or Non Rebreather mask is considered "100% O2" Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 4.What airway opening maneuver should be used on a man that has fallen off a ladder and is suffering from respiratory distress? A. Head Tilt - Chin Lift B. Intubation C. Bite Block D. Jaw Thrust Answer: D Explanation: The "Jaw Thrust" maneuver should be used to open the airway of any patient who has suffered a traumatic injury 2 / 16

3. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 5.A device that deliver a specific amount of medication to the lungs, by supplying a short burst of aerosolized medicine that is inhaled by the patient. Is known as a? A. Nebulizer B. Aero Chamber C. Metered Dose Inhaler D. Albuterol Answer: C Explanation: A Metered Dose Inhaler is commonly used to treat Asthma, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, and other respiratory problems. 6.The anatomy of the airway consists of the upper and the lower airway. The upper airway starts at the mouth and Nares and ends at the _________? A. Thyroid cartilage B. Epiglottis C. Cricoid cartilage D. Vocal cords Answer: C Explanation: The airway is divided into two different anatomical locations; the upper airway and lower airway. The upper airway starts where air enters the body, nose (Nares) and the mouth. Air will pass through the nose and is filtered and warmed before passing through the remainder of the upper airway and entering the lower airway. The upper airway ends at the Cricoid cartilage, the distal end of the larynx. The Thyroid cartilage is located at the proximal end of the larynx. 7.The tongue often is a source of airway obstruction, it falls back and occludes the _________? A. Larynx B. Trachea C. Nasopharynx D. Pharynx Answer: D Explanation: The pharynx or throat is often occluded by the tongue falling back and obstructing air flow. When air Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 enters the nostrils it passes through the nasopharnx then the oropharnx the pharynx before it enters the trachea. Jaw thrust or chin lift will pull the tongue off the back of the pharynx to open the airway allowing air flow to the lungs. The trachea is too distal for the tongue to occlude the trachea 8.The lower airway ends at the Alveoli, gas exchange occurs at this level. Oxygen moves to the hemoglobin by passing through a semipermible membrane. Name this membrane. A. Capillary bed B. Bronchioles C. Capillary blood D. Veinule Answer: A 3 / 16

4. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Explanation: The bronchi sub divide into smaller and smaller passages, they end with tiny air sacs called alveoli. The alveoli are covered in capillaries, this is where the gas exchange occurs. The carbon dioxide moves off of the hemoglobin and oxygen moves to the hemoglobin by diffusion. Movement of a gas from a higher concentration to a lower concentration. At the level of the capillaries is where the arteries switch to veins, capillaries are so small only one blood cell can pass through at a time. 9.To create negative pressure in the thorax (chest cavity) the diaphragm contracts and moves _____________ which expands the volume of the thorax allowing air to rush into the lungs. A. Upward B. Outward C. Downward D. The diaphragm does not move, the chest wall expands. Answer: C Explanation: The diaphragm is a thin tough muscle which separates the thorax and abdomen. The diaphragm is domed upward in its relaxed state, so when it contracts the diaphragm flattens out causing the volume of the thorax to increase. Since the pressure in the thorax is lower than atmospheric air will rush into the lungs allowing for gas exchange. While the chest wall does expand it is the diaphragm is the primary respiratory muscle, chest muscles have a smaller role in regards to normal respirations 10.When the diaphragm relaxes it regains it's domed shape causing an increase in thoracic pressure forcing air out of the lungs. To have air forced out of the lungs the pressure in the thorax must rise above _______________ pressure? A. Trans thoracic B. Atmospheric C. Trans abdominal D. Respiratory Answer: B Explanation: For air to be pushed out of the lungs the trans thoracic pressure must rise above atmospheric (barometric). The diaphragm will relax and dome upward and the intercostal muscles will contract and pull the rib cage inward increasing the transthorasic pressure above atmospheric, forcing air out. Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 11.Which of the following ventilatory techniques is likely to yield the LOWEST tidal volumes? A. One person bag-valve-mask B. Two person bag-valve-mask C. Flow restricted oxygen powered ventilatory device D. Mouth-to-mask Answer: A Explanation: With both mouth-to-mouth and mouth-to-mask ventilation, it is relatively easy to maintain a good seal with the patient s mouth, allowing for delivery of adequate tidal volumes. Likewise, two person bag-valve-mask techniques dedicate one rescuer solely to ensuring adequate mask seal and the second rescuer to 4 / 16

5. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. squeeze the ventilation bag with two hands (again allowing for adequate tidal volumes to be delivered). One person bag-valve-mask usage is a difficult technique to master, as the single rescuer must maintain a manual airway maneuver, an adequate mask seal, and squeeze the bag simultaneously. 12.In order to assist intubation, a paramedic may utilize Sellick's maneuver. What cartilage are you compressing? A. Cricoid cartilage B. Aryepiglottic cartilage C. Thyroid cartilage D. Hyoid cartilage Answer: A Explanation: While all of theses structures are in the same general area, the paramedic specifically utilizes the Cricoid cartilage. This is particularly important since this is the only "full ring" cartilage 13.You are transporting an elderly male patient in respiratory distress with a history of COPD... The patient has very shallow, rapid respirations with minimal chest wall motion and slight wheezing in the upper lung fields. Given this situation, what would you expect the arterial carbon dioxide levels to be? A. Not enough information to determine B. Normal C. Lowered D. Elevated Answer: C Explanation: The patient would be hypercapnic as he is probably only ventilating dead space. The patient is not breathing deep enough for air exchange to occur in the alveoli, hence the elevated levels of carbon dioxide. 14.You are transporting a 48-year-old male patient between medical facilities... During the history, you learn that the patient was involved in a fall at work and suffered a hip fracture and a head injury. The patient is now presenting with labored breathing at 30/min that has progressively worsened over the last 24 hours, a heart rate of 104, and a blood pressure of 98/70. On auscultation, you hear diffuse rales. The patient denies any complaints of pain other than those related to his recent fall. Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 What is the most likely cause of the patient's respiratory distress? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Congestive heart failure C. Acute bronchitis D. Adult respiratory distress syndrome Answer: D Explanation: Adult respiratory distress syndrome involves non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema that presents 1272 hours post injury or surgery. Congestive heart failure and cardiogenic shock, while they may occur from the ARDS, have an initial cardiac compromise. Flash pulmonary edema has a rapid onset and deterioration over as little as 30 minutes and is associated with renal dysfunction. 5 / 16

6. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 15.Which of the following is the most effective method for administering ventilations to an apneic patient by health care providers? A. Two person bag-valve-mask. B. FROPVD C. One person bag-valve-mask. D. Mouth-to-mouth. Answer: A Explanation: The two person bag-valve-mask is the most effective method to administer ventilations with a BVM; however, it is not always practical for field application due to limited resources and limited space. The use of mouth to mask ventilations is also identified as a viable form of artificial ventilations, but the risk of cross contamination in mouth to mouth ventilations renders it less desirable to health care providers. 16.A blue or greyish coloration of the skin caused be lack of oxygen in the blood is called? A. Suffocation B. Cyanosis C. Tinting D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Cyanosis occurs when the oxygen saturation of arterial blood falls below 85-90%. It is often presents in the lips and nail beds first. 17.You are performing rescue breaths using an Ambu bag attached to 100% O2, after several breaths you notice the patients O2 saturation has dropped significantly. What should you do next? A. Increase the rate of respirations B. Reposition the patients head C. Change the seal on the mask D. Remove the oral airway from the patients mouth Answer: B Explanation: Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 This is a sign that you are not getting effective respirations, you should reposition the patient head using the head tilt / chin lift or jaw thrust maneuver and attempt respirations against. 18.What is the proper amount of air that should be injected to the color of an Endo Tracheal Tube. A. 1 cc B. 25 cc C. 10cc D. 100 cc Answer: C Explanation: The standard ET Tube color is inflated with 10 cc of air 6 / 16

7. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 19.The space between the base if the tongue and the epiglottis is called? A. Tonsils B. Criciod C. Larynx D. Vallecula Answer: D Explanation: The Vallecula is an important landmark in intubation; it is where the blade of a laryngoscope is placed to facilitate direct visualization of the glottis. 20.Slow (3-4 per minute), irregular inspirations followed by irregular pauses, sometimes describes as gasping, labored breathing, accompanied by strange vocalizations are known as? A. Agonal Breaths B. Stridor C. Obstructed Airway D. Wheezing Answer: A Explanation: Agonal respirations are also commonly seen in cases of cardiac arrest, and may persist for several minutes after cessation of heartbeat. 21.Maximum amount of time that may pass while attempting an intubation. A. 10 Seconds B. 30 Seconds C. 1 minutes D. 10 Minutes Answer: B Explanation: If you are unsuccessful it your intubation you should always cease your attempt after 30 seconds, allow for patient to be hyperventilated and attempt it again. 22.A high pitched sound resulting from turbulent air flow in the upper airway. It may be inspiratory, Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 expiratory or present on both inspiration and expiration. Is called? A. Respiratory Arrest B. Wheezing C. Stridor D. Asthma Answer: C Explanation: Stridor is indicative of a severe upper airway obstruction. 23.The inability to move enough air required for adequate perfusion is what? A. Respiratory Arrest 7 / 16

8. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. B. Respiratory Failure C. Cardiac Failure D. Pleurisy Answer: B Explanation: Respiratory failure is a medical term for inadequate gas exchange by the respiratory system. Respiratory failure can be indicated by observing a drop in O2 saturation and breathing rate / quality. 24.Two large tubes that bring air two and from the lungs. A. Bronchi B. Larynx C. Diaphragm D. Ronchi Answer: A Explanation: The Trachea leads to the Bronchi which leads into the Bronculiolis. 25.Expansion of the stomach caused by too forceful ventilation pressures, which causes excess air to enter the stomach instead of the lungs. A. Inflation B. Gastric Distention C. Gastric Bypass D. Eviscertion Answer: B Explanation: Gastric Distention should be avoided as it often leads to vomiting and aspiration of said emesis. 26.Which of the following is not a sign of adequate breathing. A. Air moving in and out of the nose and mouth. B. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest C. Breathing limited to abdominal muscles. D. Absence of blue / grey skin coloration Answer: C Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 Explanation: Using abdominal muscles to breath is a sign of labored breathing or respiratory 27.Cyanosis can be checked by observing the patients _______? A. Tongue B. Earlobes C. Nail beds D. All of the above Answer: C Explanation: Early signs of cyanosis often presents more clearly in the Nail beds and Lips 8 / 16

9. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. 28.A n oral and nasal airway should be: A. Cleaned well for reuse after the run B. Inserted in all critically injured patients C. Used to keep the tongue from blocking the airway D. used in order to prevent the need for suctioning Answer: C Explanation: While unconscious the tongue has a tendency to fall back in the mouth and block the airway. An oral or nasal airway is used to prevent this. 29.Which medication that will open bronchioles and increase effectiveness of breathing is typically used to treat a patient with shortness of breath? A. Bronchodilators B. Bronchoconstrictors C. Anti-Inflammatory D. Pneumodialator Answer: A Explanation: Bronchodilators are used to dilate or widen the bronchioles allowing air to more easily flow through them. A common bronchodilator is Albeuterol. 30.You arrive at the scene of en elderly women who has fallen and injured her ribs. She is breathing very rapidly at a rate of 40 and shallow. How is this a serious life threat. A. She is inhaling to much oxygen B. Her minute volume may be diminished C. Her minute volume may is excessive D. She has exceeded her dead space Answer: C Explanation: In her current state the patient may not be moving enough for adequate tissue perfusion Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 31.The endotracheal tube is primarily intended to: A. Be placed into the esophagus B. Provide a medication route C. Be inserted into the trachea D. Be used as a means of suctioning the hypopharynx Answer: C Explanation: By inserting the endotracheal tube in to the trachea you isolate the trachea from the esophagus therefore creating a patent airway. 32.The Sellick's maneuver is designed to: 9 / 16

10. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. Reduce the risk of vomiting B. Move the vallecula into view C. Move the carina into view D. Collapse the trachea Answer: A Explanation: The Sellick's maneuver is designed to reduce the risk of vomiting during intubation by directly collapsing the esophagus, in addition it can also help bring the vocal cords into view. 33.Medical control has ordered you to assist a patient with a metered dose inhaler. Before assisting this patient you must ensure what? A. Its not leaking B. It is there medication and is within the expiration date C. They are not choking D. The hospital has more of the same medication for arrival Answer: B Explanation: Before assisting anyone with a metered dose inhaler you must make sure it is there medication and is not out of date. 34.A spontaneous pneumothorax is? A. More common is women than men B. Caused by an impact to the chest that penetrates the lung C. A sudden accumulation of air in the pleural space D. Only seen in people with COPD Answer: C Explanation: Spontaneous pneumothorax is commonly seen in COPD Patients, but can also be caused by a rupture of certain types of blisters in the lung. 35.An intervention for someone who is apneic would be? A. Oropharyngeal Airway B. BVM Mask C. Intubation Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: Some one who is apneic is not breathing there fore any or all of the above would be correct interventions to help this patient. 36.Paradoxical motion of the chest during exhalation is often caused by what type of injury? A. Larynx B. Criciod Cartilage C. Epiglottis 10 / 16

11. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. D. Diaphragm Answer: C Explanation: A Flail Chest occurs when multiple adjacent ribs are broken in multiple places, separating a segment, so a part of the chest wall moves independently. This independent movement is known as Paradoxical motion. 37.Cardiac arrest in children is most often caused by: A. Chest trauma. B. Respiratory compromise. C. Hypovolemia. D. Irregular rhythm. Answer: B Explanation: The most common complication causing pediatric cardiac arrest is inadequate breathing or other respiratory compromise. 38.The first step in artificial ventilation with a bagvalve-mask unit in patients with no suspected trauma is to: A. Position the mask correctly on the face using both hands. B. Place the patient’s head in a hyperextended, sniffing position. C. Insert an airway adjunct and select the correct mask size. D. Have an assistant squeeze the bag until the patient’s chest rises. Answer: B Explanation: The correct order of steps would be b, c, a, d. 39.A 70-year-old patient is complaining of shortness of breath. She has a history of emphysema. You should A. Withhold oxygen, since these patients do not respond to oxygen. B. Withhold oxygen, because you could eliminate the hypoxic drive. C. Administer oxygen, because in most cases, the hypoxic drive will not be a problem. D. Withhold oxygen, because these patients become apneic if they receive high-flow oxygen. Answer: C Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 Explanation: While it may be true that providing high levels of oxygen over prolonged time periods may cause the hypoxic drive to fail, it is a rare occurrence in the prehospital field. With the complaint of shortness of breath, it is better to ensure that the patient is fully oxygenated rather than taking a chance that she is hypoxic. The EMT-Basic is prepared to ventilate the patient if she goes into respiratory arrest due to the high levels of oxygen. 40.A danger of using a rigid suction catheter with infants and young children is that stimulating the back of the throat can: A. Cause changes in the heart rhythm. B. Be ineffective in suctioning. 11 / 16

12. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. C. Lead to immediate vomiting. D. Cause the tongue to fall into the airway. Answer: A Explanation: When using a rigid catheter to suction infants and small children, take care not to touch the back of the throat, since stimulation here can cause bradycardia due to stimulation of the vagus nerve. 41.Your patient is a 35-year-old trauma victim who is not breathing. You are unable to open the airway by means of the jaw thrust and suctioning. You should: A. Attempt a mouth-to-mask ventilation. B. Use the head-tilt/chin-lift technique. C. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask unit. D. Insert an airway through a tracheostomy. Answer: B Explanation: Although the head-tilt/chin-lift is not ordinarily used on trauma patients because it interferes with spinal immobilization and alignment, opening the airway takes priority over all other considerations. Be sure to document your actions in the patient care report. 42.Which statement about inadequate breathing is correct? A. A breathing rate that is either too fast or too slow may indicate inadequate breathing. B. Inadequate breathing is much less common in small children than in older adults. C. Increased effort of breathing is often a normal sign and is not associated with inadequate breathing. D. A patient breathing very deeply or very shallowly is compensating for an abnormal respiratory rate. Answer: A Explanation: A respiratory rate that is either too fast or too slow may be a sign of inadequate breathing. Respiratory distress occurs with many medical and trauma problems and spans the age groups, making choice b inaccurate. An increased work (effort) of breathing frequently accompanies inadequate breathing as the patient attempts to compensate, but it should never be considered a “normal sign” as suggested by choice c. Patients may breathe shallowly or deeply for a number of reasons, only one of which is to compensate for an abnormal rate, making choice d inaccurate. Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 43. Topic 2, Cardiology Your patient is a 52-year old male complaining of dull, achy chest pains. He is alert & oriented but upon assessment, you notice his skin is pale, cool and clammy. What is your next step? A. Obtain SAMPLE History B. Apply an AED C. Administer Supplemental Oxygen D. Assist the patient with his wife’s nitroglycerin. Answer: C Explanation: 12 / 16

13. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Giving Oxygen to a cardiac patient as soon as possible can help reduce damage to the heart muscle. 44.Cardiac Compromise is: A. Angina B. A heart attack C. A period of time when the heart stops D. Any type of heart problem Answer: D Explanation: Cardiac Compromise is a blanket term used to describe any type of heart problem. As an EMT-B, it allows you to identify that the patient has cardiac problem without going above your scope of practice 45.An AED is used to treat patients in: A. Ventricular Fibrillation B. Asystole C. Pulseless Electrical Activity D. Acute Myocardial Infarction Answer: A Explanation: An AED is used to treat pulseless, apneic patients in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. 46.The normal heart rate for an infant under the age of 1 is: A. 140 – 160 B. 120 – 140 C. 100 – 120 D. 80– 100 Answer: B Explanation: The normal heart rate for a newborn is 140 –160 and an infant’s is 120 – 140 beats per minutes. Children between the ages of 1-6 have a heart rate of 100 – 120, while children over the age of 6 have a heart rate of 80 – 100 BPM. 47.The two-flap valve located on the left side of the heart is the: A. Bivalve Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 B. Aortic valve C. Bicuspid valve D. Pulmonary Valve Answer: C Explanation: The two-flap valve is called the mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve. The three-flap valve is the tricuspid valve. 48.The cardiovascular system or the circulatory system is made up of three major components; which of the following is not a component of the cardiovascular system? 13 / 16

14. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. A. Heart B. Blood vessels C. Myoglobin D. Blood Answer: C Explanation: The heart, blood vessels and blood are all major components of the cardiovascular system. Myoglobin is a component of muscle, when large muscle masses are injured they give off myoglobin into the blood stream. Myoglobin molecules are large and cause problems with renal system during times of trauma, elocution or burns. 49.Name the layers of the heart from the outside in. A. Pericardium, endocardium, epicardium B. Myocardium, epicardium, endocardium C. Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium D. Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium Answer: C Explanation: The layers of the heart from the outer most to the innermost layer. The pericardium is actually the protective sac which surrounds the heart. The heart is covered with a thin layer of slippery tissue called the epicardium, it provides a surface which can move inside the pericardium without causing friction. The myocardium is the muscle tissue of the heart which conducts electricity which causes the muscle to squeeze pumping blood. The endocardium is made of the same type of tissue as the epicardium. The endocardium is very smooth to prevent clots from forming and adhering to the valves. 50.What complaints describes a typical presentation of chest pain is often used to describe a cardiac event type of pain? A. Sharp stabbing pain which can be located with one finger B. A ton of bricks on my chest C. A tickling feeling D. Dull tooth ach nagging discomfort Answer: B Explanation: Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 Typical cardiac related chest pain is often referred to as a pressure, like "a ton of bricks on my chest" or an elephant sitting on their chest. You can rule out a cardiac event on type of chest pain described alone. Some patients will have atypical chest pain which could be described as anything from sharp pain to a pulled muscle to a tooth ach. Sharp stabbing pain which can be located with one finger is often a Pulmonary Embolism. 51.What artery caries deoxygenated blood and which vein caries oxygenated blood? A. Pulmonary, Aorta B. Pulmonary, inferior vena cava C. Pulmonary, Pulmonary D. Aorta, Superior vena cava 14 / 16

15. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Answer: C Explanation: The pulmonary artery is the only artery to carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs for gas exchange. The pulmonary vein is the only vein to carry oxygenated blood back to the heart. Typically the arteries carry oxygen rich blood away from the heart to the systemic circulation. Veins typically carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. The aorta is the main artery exiting the left ventricle to the body and the vena cava's return blood back to the right side of the heart. 52.Which are not blood components which are responsible for clot formation? A. Platelets B. Plaque C. Thrombin D. Fibrin Answer: B Explanation: Plaque is actually the build up of fatty deposits on the artery walls which narrow and harden the arteries. While a clot often forms around plaque, especially around a plaque rupture, it is not a part of the clotting process. Platelets are the flat disks which stick together forming the thrombus. Fibrin is the small strands of fiber which make up the frame work of the clot making it stronger, like reinforcing rods in concrete. Thrombin is the protein chemo activator which signals the formation of a clotting process. 53.You are dispatched to a residence for a 46-year-old female patient complaining of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. She states that the onset occurred shortly after eating some cheesecake. Her only medical history is lactose intolerance. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Her radial pulse is 94 beats per minute and her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. She vomited two times prior to your arrival. From what condition is this patient most likely suffering? A. Gastrointestinal reflux disease B. Diverticulitis C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Acute gastroenteritis Answer: D Explanation: Acute gastroenteritis may be caused by bacterial or viral ingestion, toxic ingestion, or ingestion of lactose Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 in a lactose intolerant patient. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping 54.Your patient is a 32-year-old male who was complaining of a severe, crushing feeling in the center of his chest and shortness of breath that began while he was mowing his lawn 45 minutes prior to your arrival. He is now only responding to painful stimuli. Presently, his minute ventilation is still adequate, his pulse oximeter reads 95% on room air, and you find his skin to be pale, cool, and diaphoretic. What would be your initial action? A. 12- 15 liters oxygen by nonrebreather. B. 325 mg aspirin. C. 4-6 liters oxygen by nasal cannula. 15 / 16

16. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. D. Sublingual nitroglycerin. Answer: A Explanation: High flow oxygen would be indicated with extreme shortness of breath during the initial assessment, so long as ventilations are adequate. If thepatientis breathing inadequately then positive pressure ventilation with oxygen should be immediately instituted. 55.You are called to a nursing home for a patient with swelling to her legs. Upon arrival, you find a 76-year-old patient sitting in a wheelchair. Assessment confirms pitting edema to both lower legs. You are able to palpate a dorsalis pedal pulse bilaterally. Her skin is warm, pink, and dry. Her lungs are clear bilaterally. Which of the following conditions do you suspect? A. Deep vein thrombosis. B. Bilateral acute arterial occlusion. C. Atherosclerosis. D. Chronic CHF. Answer: D Explanation: Edema to the legs or sacrum are often a result of right-sided congestive heart failure. Often, there may also be jugular vein distention and ascites present as well. The most common cause of right-sided heart failure is left-sided heart failure; therefore, you may also note signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure such as a dry, hacking cough, or coughing up pink frothy sputum, shortness of breath, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and fatigue Pass EMT Exam With Killtest EMT Updated Materials V8.02 16 / 16