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Haematology revision Shin Ying Lee
2010 • You are on cover for a surgical ward when you are called to Mrs McCulloch, who has just commenced a blood transfusion for a low post operative haemoglobin. Three minutes after the start of the transfusion the patient develops lumbar pains, rigors, dyspnoea and hypotension.
2010 • You are on cover for a surgical ward when you are called to Mrs McCulloch, who has just commenced a blood transfusion for a low post operative haemoglobin. Three minutes after the start of the transfusion the patient develops lumbar pains, rigors, dyspnoea and hypotension.
What is the name of this complication of the transfusion. 1 Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
What is the most likely procedural reason for this complication to have arisen? 1 ABO incompatibility. Failure to check identity of patient when taking sample for compatibility testing, failure to perform paper identity checks before blood is transfused.
List 3 treatments that the patient might then urgently require. 3 • High flow oxygen • IV fluids • Diuretics
Name 2 further steps that would need to be taken rapidly. 1 1. Send donor blood back to blood bank with notification of event 2. Inform hospital transfusion department immediately
What might you detect in the urine? 1 Hemoglobin
List three further short term complications of blood transfusions. 3 1. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction 2. Allergic and anaphylactic reaction 3. TRALI (Transfusion related acute lung injury)
2007 • A 40 year old woman presents with recent tiredness and lethargy. She has pale conjunctivae and you think there may be some yellowing of the sclera.
2007 • A 40 year old woman presents with recent tiredness and lethargy. She has pale conjunctivae and you think there may be some yellowing of the sclera.
Name two investigations you would perform and what are you likely to see? 2 1. Bloods – FBC, LFT. high reticulocytes count, High bilirubin levels>50 2. Peripheral blood film- spherocytes, elliptocytes 2. Urine sample – Urobilinogen in the urine
What two abnormalities might you expect to see on biochemistry and haematology in haemolytic anaemia? 2 Biochem- High bilirubin levels, high LDH Haemato- Low hemoglobin, increase reticulocytes count
She has a splenectomy. What two things would you want to vaccinate against? 2 Pneumococcal vaccine Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine
What two pieces of advice would you want to give her in regards to her asplenism?2 1) Lifelong prophylactic antibiotics 2) Reimmunisation every 5 years, annual influenza vaccine 3) Increased risk of malaria falciparum, anti-malarial precautions
Name two causes of haemolytic anaemia. 2 1) Abnormal membrane (Hereditary spherocytosis, elliptocytosis) 2) Abnormal enzymes (G6PD deficiency) 3) Abnormal hemoglobin synthesis (thalassemia, hemoglobinopathies, sickle cell disease)
Leukaemia • 4 types Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) Acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL) Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Investigations • Blood count, White count differentials, red cells, haemoglobin, plaletets • Peripheral blood film • Bone marrow biopsy and aspiration • Immunophenotyping and molecular methods • Cytogenetic analysis
CML • Anaemia, bruising, unwell • Dragging sensation at the abdomen/ abdomen fullness (splenomegaly) • Translocation of 9: 22. Philadelphia chromosome >80% cases • Chimeric gene (BCR/ABL) > phosphoprotein (p190 and p210) with high tyrosine kinase activity seen. • spectrum of myeloid lineage cells
Three phrases - Chronic phase - Accelerated phase - Blast crisis
Treatment • Imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor) Glivec/Gleevec • Allogenic transplantation
CLL • Swollen glands • Constitutional signs and symptoms: Fever, night sweats, weight loss • Mature lymphocytes • Transformed to Diffuse Large B cell lymphoma Richter’s transformation • Chemotherapy • Stem cell transplant
AML • Neoplastic proliferation of blast cells derived from myeloid elements. • Bone marrow aspiration: auer rods, myeloid precursors
ALL • Affects children more commonly • Bleeding gums, recurrent infections, tiredness • Hepato-splenomegaly • Bone marrow aspiration: lymphoblast with PAS positive
Treatment Chemotherapy • Remission induction : Vincristine, prednisolone, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin • Consolidation • CNS prophylaxis: Intrathecal methotrexate+/- CNS irradiation • Maintenance Bone marrow transplant
Lymphoma • Two types: Hodgkin’s and Non Hodgkins • Malignancy of the lymph nodes • Diagnosis confirmation – lymph node biopsy • Bloods plus LDH, uric acid • CXR: bihilar lymphadenopathy • Staging: CT scan chest, abdo-pelvis+BMA • B symptoms: fever, weight loss, night sweats, lethargy
Types • Nodular sclerosis (good prognosis) • Mixed cellularity • Lymphocyte rich • Lymphocyte depleted (poor)
Reed Sternberg Cell • Nucleus is enclosed with an abundant amphophilic cytoplasm, and contains large, inclusion-like, owl eyed nucleoli, surrounded by a clear halo. • Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Ann Arbor staging • Stage I - a single lymph node area or single extranodal site • Stage II - 2 or more lymph node areas on the same side of the diaphragm • Stage III - denotes lymph node areas on both sides of the diaphragm • Stage IV - disseminated or multiple involvement of the extranodal organs
Non Hodgkin’s Treatment • Depending on subtype • Low grade if symptomless none, localized radiotherapy, diffuse (Chlorambucil) • High grade (DLBCL) CHOP • Cychophosphamide • Hydroxydaunorubicin • Oncovin (vincristine) • Prednisolone • +/- Rituximab
Myeloma • Malignant clonal proliferation of B-lymphocyte derived plasma cells • Osteolytic bone lesions – unexplained backache, pathological fractures • Anaemic, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia • Renal impairment
Investigations • Bloods: Blood count, Hypercalcemia- increase osteoclastic activity • Serum and urine electrophoresis • Urine sample- Bence Jones protein – K, Lambda light chains • B2 microglobulin prognostic test • Skeletal survey- Lytic ‘punched out’ lesion
Diagnostic criteria • Monoclonal protein band in serum or urine electrophoresis • Increased plasma cells found on BMB • Evidence of end organ damage from myeloma - Hypercalcemia - Renal insufficiency - Anaemia - Bone lesions
Treatment • Supportive • Chemotherapy
Complications of myeloma • Hypercalcaemia • Spinal cord compression • Hyperviscosity • Acute renal failure
4 causes of massive splenomegaly • CML • Malaria • Myelofibrosis • Thalassemia
EMQ questions • A 27-year-old man presents with a two-month history of pruritis, fatigue and weight loss. On questioning he admits that whenever he drinks alcohol, he experiences bone pain. On examination he has a rubbery non-tender submandibular lymph node. He has never had infectious mononucleosis.
EMQ questions • A 27-year-old man presents with a two-month history of pruritis, fatigue and weight loss. On questioning he admits that whenever he drinks alcohol, he experiences bone pain. On examination he has a rubbery non-tender submandibular lymph node. He has never had infectious mononucleosis. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
EMQ questions • A 68-year-old woman presents with a history of bruising, bone pain and lymphadenopathy. Unbeknownst to the consultant, this patient has a (t9,22) mutation known as the Philadelphia Chromosome. On examination the consultant finds a massively enlarged spleen.
EMQ questions • A 68-year-old woman presents with a history of bruising, bone pain and lymphadenopathy. Unbeknownst to the consultant, this patient has a (t9,22) mutation known as the Philadelphia Chromosome. On examination the consultant finds a massively enlarged spleen. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
EMQ questions • A 12-year-old girl of Nigerian descent and with a known blood disorder presents to A&E with a two-day history of dyspnoea, cough and fever. You order several investigations and note that she has a Hb of 6g/dl (reference range 11.5 – 1.35 g/dl) and a chest X-ray showing pulmonary infiltrates.
EMQ questions • A 12-year-old girl of Nigerian descent and with a known blood disorder presents to A&E with a two-day history of dyspnoea, cough and fever. You order several investigations and note that she has a Hb of 6g/dl (reference range 11.5 – 1.35 g/dl) and a chest X-ray showing pulmonary infiltrates. Sickle cell anaemia